Ben Steigmann writes:
I found this to be interesting: http://www.veteranstoday.com/2013/09/24/sexual-decadence-weimar-germany/
Yes, but during that era, there were not any Marxist Jews in Germany preaching decadence and depravity for the German Gentiles in order to facilitate a Communist Revolution! This is what the crazy Cultural Marxist theory would suggest.
Yes, there were Jews who formed a short-lived Communist government in Bavaria in 1920 which was quickly overthrown. There was also the Communist Party of Germany the German Social Democratic Party. The Communists and the socialists despised each other and often fought in the streets. Strangely enough, proto-fascists were also very active politically during this time, and they also fought with both parties of the Left in the streets all the time. And government itself was basically paralyzed.
Neither the Communists nor the Social Democrats nor certainly the Fascists had anything to do with the mass cultural and sexual depravity of the decade. Surely the fascists and the Communists opposed it, as both tend to be puritanical, and I doubt if the Social Democrats had much to say about it either, as this was before the Left became a Cultural Left. Back then, socialists didn’t have much to say about culture as they tended to form all of their analysis around class based economics and felt that any other analysis was not productive.
First of all, Cultural Marxist theory starts with the Frankfurt School Jews after WW2. These decadent Jews were German Jews during the 1920’s. Yes, this era during which there was heavy Jewish influence was characterized by extreme cultural degeneration and depravity, but the Jews were not doing it to weaken the Gentiles in order to facilitate Communist Revolution. The Jews themselves were succumbing as much to this degeneration and depravity as the Gentiles were.
How does the example of Weimar Germany elucidate the Theory of Cultural Marxism?