We've been told emphatically there's no correlation between guns and murder rates. Lengthy, impossible-to-follow analyses have been offered to justify this incredible claim. But my question remains unanswered. How can there NOT be a correlation between gun availability and murder rates given that such a high percentage of overall murders are gun murders?
I figure the only possible answer would be that if no guns were available, the would-be murderers would ALL resort to one of the other weapons, knives, blunt objects, etc. And it's not like we've never heard that one either. But, seriously, does it make sense to you? Do you think that if the most efficient and successful killing tool were not available, the same number of murders would take place?
I don't think so.
Therefore, by diminishing gun availability to the most unfit people by the implementation of strict gun control and by removing guns from those who prove themselves to be irresponsible, fewer people would die - lives would be saved.