A crazy homosexual writes:
…(If someone is truly straight, you can’t just talk them into taking part in gay sex!)…
Then we have the nonsense that you can’t convert or recruit someone who isn’t already gay in the first place.
But we have societies like Ancient Greece and Ancient Rome where male homosexuality (really bisexuality) was so common that close to 100% of males participated in it for many years.
According to the insane PC line, the 95% of men in Antiquity who engaged in homosexuality would not have done it unless they were already gay to start with. So in Antiquity, we had bizarre societies in which nearly 100% of males were gay, presumably biologically gay! The reason that nearly all men engaged in homosexuality was because they were already gay to start with (presumably born that way).
Wow! How did that happen? Was there some mass genetic defect that ran through the population later to die out?
If Antiquity is any example, theoretically, mass male homosexuality can potentially unfold in any society if the circumstances are right. We know this because the men in Antiquity were no biologically or genetically different from us.
And even if the Gay Lobby line is correct that only men who are already gay can be pressured, tricked or seduced into this behavior, then going on the basis of Antiquity and the fact this population is biologically like any other, according to Gay Lobby theory, the truth is that nearly 100% of the male population of the world is already gay and can potentially be recruited or converted.
And if nearly 100% of the male population of the world is already basically gay, then what is the sense of the argument in the title that says you can’t recruit someone who isn’t already gay? Of course you can’t seduce a man who isn’t already gay to start with, but as almost 100% of men are already gay anyway, why even make or use the argument as it’s already a given?
